T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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763.1 | I like this topic alot | VMSDEV::WIBECAN | The hungry bailiffs blink | Wed Jan 10 1990 19:52 | 9 |
| Perhaps it has something to do with the way the word is used. "Alot" is used
in "alot of money," but also in "I like fishing alot" and "he does that alot."
I remember thinking as a child that "I like fishing a lot" looked funny.
I agree that the "a - l" combination is popular in English; many of the
combination words I can think of begin with "all" smashed into something else.
What examples are there that don't fit this mold?
Brian
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763.2 | alot | KAOFS::S_BROOK | Here today and here again tomorrow | Wed Jan 10 1990 21:30 | 0 |
763.3 | alot or allot ????? | KAOFS::S_BROOK | Here today and here again tomorrow | Wed Jan 10 1990 21:45 | 18 |
| >Perhaps it has something to do with the way the word is used. "Alot" is used
>in "alot of money," but also in "I like fishing alot" and "he does that alot."
>I remember thinking as a child that "I like fishing a lot" looked funny.
I wonder too if the mashing together of alot is due to confusion with the
word allot (as in the settlers were alloted a tract of land).
The meaning of a lot does seem rather contorted. I have always taken a
lot to mean a portion, usually, but not necessarily a large portion.
As for using it in the form "How much do you like xxx ?", "I like xxx a lot"
seems very strange and so avoid it in prefernce to much or very much. I
haven't checked the grammatical correctness of lot in this context but
have my doubts as to its validity.
After all would you say "I like fishing a portion" or "a large portion" ?
Stuart
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763.4 | I use it a lot, sometimes | LAMHRA::WHORLOW | Are you proud of Digital's computers? | Wed Jan 10 1990 22:24 | 16 |
| G'day,
Quite a lot of people use a lot to indicate a degree of muchness.
Similarly, 'not a lot', indicates a small measure of muchness, or even a
neagite measure of muchness ie How did you like going to the dentist?
Not a lot.
Use of a lot in these contexes is common in the UQ. It may have derived
from schoolboys at school dinners when asked how much potato, replied
"A lot" meaning as much as possible.
derek
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763.5 | Awholebunch | SHALOT::ANDERSON | Give me a U, give me a T... | Thu Jan 11 1990 14:20 | 11 |
| Just off the top of my head ... My guess is that people do
not process "a lot" as two words. For most speakers, it
probably just functions as an intensifier -- i.e., "often"
or "very much." And that's the way it's listed in the
dictionary. I also think this is probably an abbreviated
form of a longer phrase -- an article and a noun typically do
not function as an adverb. Any guesses as to what that phrase
is? Also, this doesn't explain "lots" in the same context --
"I'm feeling lots better."
-- Cliff
|
763.6 | sounds reasonable to me | TLE::RANDALL | living on another planet | Thu Jan 11 1990 15:19 | 12 |
| It seems to me that a migration from "a lot," meaning "a portion,"
to "I like it a lot," in the sense of "very much" ("a great deal",
"a great portion") is a reasonable extension of meaning.
English words change parts of speech constantly. Nouns become
verbs, and adjectives regularly become nouns. You see it most
often with trademarks -- instead of "a VAX computer" or "a zipper
slide fastener" or "a jar of Tabasco liquid hot-pepper sauce"
people say "Boot the VAX" or "Your zipper is open" or "Pass the
tabasco, please."
--bonnie
|
763.7 | Combination is common | MINAR::BISHOP | | Thu Jan 11 1990 16:28 | 10 |
| Compare "alot" with the history of "pas" in French--the
older negative was "ne", often intensified with "pas"
("not a step") or "point" ("not a bit"). By now, much
of the negativity has been attached to the "pas", as in
"pas de tout", and you can't use "ne" alone (any native
French speakers want to comment? Do you think "Je ne
sais" is a grammatical sentence, or does it need the
"pas"?).
-John Bishop
|
763.8 | get a load of this | MYCRFT::PARODI | John H. Parodi | Thu Jan 11 1990 17:13 | 17 |
|
No comment on "a lot" turning into "alot" because I believe I am on record
in this file as being in favor of "alright." This may be foolish
consistency, but then I have a small mind.
I always figured that the "a great deal" meaning of both lot and
lots came from meaning number 4 in my Webster's New Collegiate, to
wit: a parcel of land. The meaning is in some sense parallel to
"load" and "loads," as in "Get a load of that."
So "We have loads of that item in stock" and "We have lots of that item
in stock" are equivalent.
Sounds plausible to me but it is well known that plausibility butters no
parsnips in JOYOFLEX.
JP
|
763.9 | | ULYSSE::LIRON | | Thu Jan 11 1990 17:16 | 21 |
| re .7
Well, in the French version of "La Boh�me", the heroin sings:
On m'appelle Mimi, et pourquoi ? Je ne sais !
Sounds a bit old-fashioned; I wouldn't say that (nobody calls
me Mimi, anyway).
Also a number of old clich�s don't take the second word, like
"Je ne saurais mieux dire", or the mysterious "je ne sais quoi"
(which dates back to Racine in 17th century).
Today the negation usually needs two words (ne...pas, ne...plus
etc...) and you'll almost always hear "Je ne sais pas" (unless
they know :)
"Je ne sais pas" is generally pronounced "Chais pas". This is
due to the decline of French, but let's not get into that one :)
roger
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763.10 | legal pedantry | SSDEVO::EGGERS | Anybody can fly with an engine. | Fri Jan 12 1990 00:31 | 5 |
| Re: .6
I feel obliged to put in the obligatory reminder that "VAX" is a
registered trademark of Digital Equipment Corporation and MUST always
be used as an adjective and never as a noun.
|
763.11 | Trademarks are nouns, not adjectives | 4GL::LASHER | Working... | Fri Jan 12 1990 06:32 | 58 |
| Re: .10 [Re: .6]
"I feel obliged to put in the obligatory reminder that 'VAX' is a
registered trademark of Digital Equipment Corporation and MUST always
be used as an adjective and never as a noun."
At the risk of launching a tangent on a matter of corporate policy, I
feel obliged to point out that there are good reasons to disagree with
the "requirement" that trademarks be used as adjectives. The reason I
bring it up in this notefile at all is to encourage people to think
clearly about how they use language.
Trademarks (also known as trade names) are not adjectives; they are
nouns, proper nouns, that is, names. Consider the most well-known,
successful trade names; they are invariably used as nouns: "This is not
your father's Oldsmobile," "This Bud's for you," "Things go better with
Coke." (The Coca-Cola corporation, which is probably the most
successful enterprise of all time in protecting its "intellectual
property," does not hesitate to use its trade names as nouns.)
Where did this urban myth arise that trade names are adjectives? From
the policy statements I have seen from the corporate Legal Department,
I surmise that there is a concern about trade names becoming generic.
As most of us are probably aware by now, certain trade names have
become too successful for their own good, with the result that they
have lost their proprietary value: cellophane and (in the U.S., but not
in Canada) aspirin are now improper nouns; Kleenex and Xerox are in
danger of a similar fate. Note that they began as nouns and remain
nouns. The critical transition is from *proper* noun to *improper*
noun, a grammatical distinction doubtless too subtle for the Legal
Department.
How should we prevent a trade name from becoming generic? I am tempted
to say that we should only be so lucky that any of our trademarks
become so successful that the public would use them to refer to our
competitors' products. But given that there is a possible problem,
however theoretical and unlikely, I respectfully disagree with the
official corporate "solution." I especially disagree with the
description of the solution as deeming trade names to be adjectives,
which they are not. The corporate rule actually requires us to
append a generic, improper noun after a proprietary, proper noun.
This works because English allows nouns to be used as adjectives, thus
leading to the mistaken impression that a noun so used is an adjective.
This clumsy usage is neither necessary nor sufficient to keep trade
names from becoming generic. As mentioned above, successful trademarks
are almost always used as nouns. On the other hand, an example of a
trademark in danger of becoming generic despite its use preceding a
second noun is "Scotch tape."
What actually protects a trademark is vigilance in insisting that the
trademark be used as a proper noun, not adherence to mistakenly
conceived, awkward grammatical constructions. "Coke" remains
proprietary because of squads of testers who order "Coke" in
restaurants and complain when served anything other than "The Real
Thing," not by the promulgation of superfluous phraseology such as
"Things go better with Coke brand cola soft drink."
Lew Lasher
|
763.12 | Not here 'alot' | WELMTS::HILL | Technology is my Vorpal sword | Fri Jan 12 1990 11:31 | 9 |
| Re 'alot'
Either, the evolution of 'a lot' to 'alot' is confined to the land
to the west of the Atlantic.
Or, it has in some way avoided Hertfordshire and Bedfordshire in
the UK.
Or, I haven't been paying attention!
|
763.13 | | SUBWAY::BOWERS | Count Zero Interrupt | Fri Jan 12 1990 15:47 | 6 |
| re .11;
Thank you for expressing clearly and concisely something that has been
bothering me alot lately.
-dave
|
763.14 | Cherchez la phonologie? | MARVIN::KNOWLES | Running old protocol | Fri Jan 12 1990 17:19 | 13 |
| What about the nature of the sounds as a reason for `a lot' contracting
but not the other examples cited in .0? Word boundaries come and go;
a similar thing, but in reverse, happened to `a norange' and `a napron'.
I suspect that word boundaries are more flexible when there's a liquid
(commonly L and R) or a nasal about (N or M, or - in some languages - NG,
or various other arcane sounds that I'd need the IPA to render).
I can think of counter-examples: `a number' (no movement there) for
example. And this isn't an idea I've heard or read elsewhere
(as far as I can remember). So this isn't gospel - it's just a thought.
b
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763.15 | Corp. Id. Manual says TMs are adjectives | PROXY::CANTOR | Go ahead; quote my say. | Sat Jan 13 1990 04:33 | 11 |
| Re .11
I too disagree with the lawyers who say that trademarks are adjectives.
A word is that part of speech needed for the way it is used. Most
trademarks are used as nouns, most of the time.
Nevertheless, our corporate lawyers have decreed that our trademarks
should only be used as adjectives. See the Corporate Identity Manual
for more.
Dave C.
|
763.16 | Weighed in the balance and found difficult? | MARVIN::KNOWLES | Running old protocol | Mon Jan 15 1990 14:33 | 17 |
| Re .11
I agree too.
I suspect that what our corporate lawyers mean when they say `A TM is
an adjective' is:
o a trademark derived from a company's name, when used to
give a specific description of something produced by that
company, is (necessarily) an adjective
[this strikes me as being an entirely superfluous statement
of the obvious]
o it is easier to protect intellectual property rights
in this sort of TM when people use it as an adjective
b
|
763.17 | what people say <> what lawyers say | TLE::RANDALL | living on another planet | Mon Jan 15 1990 19:36 | 4 |
| .11 and .16 are making the mistake of assuming that there is some
connection between reality and legality.
--bonnie
|
763.18 | | ULYSSE::LIRON | | Tue Jan 16 1990 17:04 | 10 |
| re .7
> Well, in the French version of "La Boh�me", the heroin sings:
It was pointed out to me (thanks, Delia) that heroin
in this case must be spelt heroine.
[It is illegal to possess the heroine if she's not
carrying her final e.]
roger
|
763.19 | "How do I possess thee? Let me count the ways ...." | LESCOM::KALLIS | Efts have feelings, too. | Tue Jan 16 1990 17:12 | 10 |
| Re .18 (Roger):
>[It is illegal to possess the heroine if she's not
>carrying her final e.]
It's doubtless illegal to possess the heroine even if she is carrying
the final e. At least in the United States, slavery's been made
illegal.
Steve Kallis, Jr.
|
763.20 | Did I see right? | SEAPEN::PHIPPS | | Tue Jan 16 1990 18:49 | 3 |
| Bonnie, did you just say lawyers were not people?!
Mike
|
763.21 | creative mind..... | IJSAPL::ELSENAAR | Fractal of the universe | Tue Jan 16 1990 19:28 | 11 |
| > >[It is illegal to possess the heroine if she's not
> >carrying her final e.]
> It's doubtless illegal to possess the heroine even if she is carrying
> the final e. At least in the United States, slavery's been made
> illegal.
Oh and Roger, don't make it worse by saying you meant "use" instead of
"possess".... :-):-)
Arie
|
763.22 | Re -.2 | SHALOT::ANDERSON | Give me a U, give me a T... | Tue Jan 16 1990 20:00 | 7 |
| > Bonnie, did you just say lawyers were not people?!
>
> Mike
Hmmm ... Seems like a reasonable assertion to me.
-- Cliff
|
763.23 | | TKOV51::DIAMOND | This note is illegal tender. | Wed Jul 04 1990 05:45 | 14 |
| Sounds like the lawyers of the Digital(TM) brand corporation are
trying to enforce a language change.
Well, lawyers' languages are almost unrelated to human languages.
The difference between lawyers' languages and other professions'
languages? If you don't want to enter a particular profession,
you don't have to learn its jargon. If you don't want to enter
law, you can still go to jail for not learning its jargon.
Why haven't they succeeded in halting all progress, I wonder.
By the way, I have seen "another words" for "in other words",
"a line with" for "aligned with", and some others that were
even more obscure. No one seems to claim that these should
be accepted as English.
|