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Conference napalm::commusic_v1

Title:* * Computer Music, MIDI, and Related Topics * *
Notice:Conference has been write-locked. Use new version.
Moderator:DYPSS1::SCHAFER
Created:Thu Feb 20 1986
Last Modified:Mon Aug 29 1994
Last Successful Update:Fri Jun 06 1997
Number of topics:2852
Total number of notes:33157

2383.0. "Biamping = Power x 2???" by HPSCAD::RFACCENDA () Tue Jul 03 1990 16:49

I've got a general question regarding biamping. 

I seem to remember a claim that biamping can result in an effective doubling
of the output of your power amp. Is this true? 

My recollection is that the argument goes something like this:

Assume you had a 100w/ch (at clipping) amp with each side driving its own 
speaker and that a 1 volt p-p signal drives each side just to clipping; 
that would be 200 (peak) watts of output. Assume also that this is a low
frequency signal, say 100hz. Assume also that you have a 1 volt p-p 2 khz signal
which you wanted  to amplify. One could have either without clipping, but not
both. To have both  signals present without clipping would mean reducing each by
half to .5 volts so that they never added to more than a 1 volt peak.

This would then reduce the power output for each signal by a factor of 4. 
That would mean the power for either signal (to avoid clipping on the sum of 
the two signals) would now be  200/4=50 watts, for a total output of 100 watts.
(it also implies further  reductions in average power for each frequency as
there are more frequencies, i.e. real music)

If biamping were used so that each signal had its own channel and speaker,
you could drive each signal at the full 1 volt p-p without clipping , thus 
allowing 100 watts for each signal, i.e. twice what would be possible without
biamping. Presumably this holds true if one extends this argument to
low frequency bandwidth signals and high frequency bandwidth signals.

To carry this through to actual perceived differences makes assumptions about 
speaker efficiency and maybe even frequency dependent response curves of 
the human ear. (Fletcher-Munson?)

Does this argument hang together? Does 100 watts into each of two speakers 
generate the same sound level as 200 watts into one speaker? If there were
perfect crossovers, would this mean that tri-amping is better and that
quad-amping even better, etc., etc. 

Thanks for any insights,
Ron
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2383.1MIZZOU::SHERMANECADSR::SHERMAN 235-8176, 223-3326Tue Jul 03 1990 17:2212
    From a power point of view (and this is probably nothing of value here), 
    100W into each of two speakers is the same amount of power as 200W into 
    one speaker.  But, as far as what you hear goes that may be another story 
    as near as I can tell.  That is, acoustics probably come into play and can 
    cause results to be skewed many different ways.  Also, if any of the
    sound equipment (amps, speakers or enclosures) are not identical there 
    could be many things (such as different frequency responses) that could
    cause the system to sound louder at different speaker locations, listening 
    locations or at different frequencies.  Not sure that I fully understand 
    the question ...
    
    Steve
2383.2Just hire more band membersMILKWY::JANZENTom 2285421FXO/28 MicrowaveLogicQualTue Jul 03 1990 18:1218
    Another interesting effect is due to geometry of sound propagation.
    With one speaker, the intensity falls off with the square of the
    distance.  If you made a long line of speakers all the way across in
    front of the audience, than for medium small distances the intensity
    would fall off only by the distance.  If you made a big wall of
    speakers (including in front of you) everywhere extending infinitely in
    all directions, it would never all off no matter how far away the
    audience was.  I tried this when I was 2�.  Worked great but it cost a
    bundle.
    Sure you can pump twice as much audio power into the atmosphere with
    two equal speakers, but the signals will interfere in different ways
    at different frequencies, sometimes reinforcing sometimes cancelling
    and in-between, even if they are wired up the same polarity.
    Expect the power to be RMS of the two speakers, or about 41% higher
    power, or about 1.5dB.  Remember folks, that's by power, not voltage. 
    If we had doubled voltage or current at the speaker, that would have
    been 6dB; 41% more 3dB.
    Tom
2383.3clarificationHPSCAD::RFACCENDATue Jul 03 1990 18:1716
    I guess I wasn't real clear about the question, I'll try to clarify it
    a bit.
    
    The argument seems to state that you can get higher overall sound
    levels from a 2 ch amp if you use the two sides in biamp mode rather than
    running them in parallel (I don't mean bridged). Is this true?
    
    If I have a 2 ch power amp that drives 2 speakers, 1 speaker/channel,
    will I be able to generate higher sound levels by adding a crossover
    and using one channel for low and the other for high frequencies?
    Assume that the speaker impedences seen by the amp are the same in
    each case, and assume equal efficiencies in the speakers in each case.  
    
    I hope this makes it a bit clearer.
    
	Ron
2383.4 I'll Try This "When I'm 64".DRUMS::FEHSKENSlen, EMA, LKG2-2/W10, DTN 226-7556Tue Jul 17 1990 10:1910
    I guess no one knows, 2 weeks having passed, but I'll hazard a guess
    that it doesn't make any difference. Assuming all other things being
    equal (e.g., each single driver has the same frequency response as the
    crossover/driver-pair combination),  I'd even argue that since the
    crossover can't be 100% efficient, the "uncrossedover" hookup delivers
    more power to the drivers, and if the drivers are equally efficient,
    more power to the listener's ears.
    
    len.
    
2383.5Just To Be ContraryAQUA::ROSTGet up and get hip to the tripTue Jul 17 1990 10:5220
    Well, it's an apples and oranges thing, isn't it?
    
    Assume you have a sound source with lots of bottom and little high end.
    Let's say 80% of the energy is below the crossover, 20% above.  This
    means when biamping, the low end system has to generate considerably
    mor epower than the high end system.  Now, go run the rig in parallel,
    you will get considerably more volume, since the low end can now draw
    from *2* amps.  If we started out assuming the drivers were identical
    (like in a bass amp where 4-10 cabs are used for both low and high
    end), then biamping would not provide more usable volume *in this
    instance*.  A more even distibution of energy across the frequency
    range changes things.
    
    An interesting aside:  in biamping of bass guitars, it has become
    common to sell amps that are not matched "stereo" pairs, but have more
    low end power than high end.  Examples are amps from Gallien Kreuger
    and Trace Elliot which drive 250-300 watts into the low end and only
    100 watts into the highs.    
    
    							Brian
2383.6Well Oh Yeah?!?DRUMS::FEHSKENSlen, EMA, LKG2-2/W10, DTN 226-7556Tue Jul 17 1990 11:385
    Contrary?  I think we agree (for different reasons) that biamping
    *doesn't* provide more volume.
    
    len.
    
2383.7STROKR::DEHAHNTue Jul 17 1990 12:3621
    
    Back from vacation. Biamping doesn't always give you more spl, in a
    strict sense. What Tom says is true, it can be additive or subtractive.
    Biamping a good two way system that has an excellent passive crossover,
    can sometimes sound worse. Because the passive crossover has more than
    simple crossover functions. There may be pads, phase correction, and
    other functions that your run of the mill electronic xover will not
    have.
    
    What biamping usually gives you is not more volume, but more headroom.
    The passive crossover will get saturated at some point, which is the
    spl limit of the system. An electronic xover will not saturate so the
    sopl limit is the limit of the driver itself. 
    
    You can actually get less spl when biamping, as Brian noted. If you're
    only using 10 out of the 100 watts on the high end channel, that's 90
    watts sitting there which the low end channel could be using. At least
    this is true for a pro, dual mono amplifier.
    
    CdH