T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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1187.1 | q? | BTOVT::BEST_G | The Guyzer | Wed Dec 20 1989 15:06 | 7 |
|
What do you mean that it is the closest tone in relation to the
root of the scale? If you look at a circle of fourths/fifths a
fourth would be as related. It would then depend on direction.
What does "closest" mean in this context?
Guy
|
1187.2 | Of course, this refers only to Western music | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Wed Dec 20 1989 17:08 | 30 |
| The 5th (dominant) is considered most closely related to the tonic,
due at least in part to the natural harmonic sequence of overtones. If
you play a tone in the right kind of circumstances, you can easily hear
the sequence of overtones, which runs:
tonic (1 octave above the note played)
5th (dominant)
4th
6th (I'm not 100% certain of this end of the sequence...may go 3rd,
than 6th)
3rd
2nd
It is because of this sequence that cadences almost always follow a
4-5-1 sequence.
Another reason the 5th is considered closest to the tonic is because
the dominant chord contains the "leading" tone (i.e., the 7th) which
naturally leans into the tonic.
A simple way to hear the overtones is with a piano in a room with good
acoustics or that is an "echo chamber" type room (i.e. no carpeting on
floors). Gently press down and hold the damper pedal. When the piano
is absolutely silent, select a key (about halfway between the middle
and bottom of the range) and press firmly. Keeping the damper pedal
depressed, listen carefully. As the tone you press fades, you will
hear it 1 octave up, than the 5th, and so on. Each successive tone
becomes more difficult to hear, so you must listen carefully. Any
exterraneous noise can interfere, especially with the damper pedal
pressed down.
|
1187.3 | | BTOVT::BEST_G | The Guyzer | Wed Dec 20 1989 17:39 | 11 |
|
That's very interesting. It almost seems like it follows a natural
order similar to that of the order of intervals from the most
concordant to the most discordant....if that doesn't follow the
accepted definition then I propose a new one. ;-) It kind of
makes sense that as the magnitude of the fundamental decreases that
you would hear successively less concordant harmonics...sorta...
maybe...???
Guy
|
1187.4 | <Snicker> | CSC32::MORGAN | Agent General of Chaos | Thu Dec 21 1989 10:35 | 6 |
| You might want to be careful. I have a good friend who is into music
and its metaphysical meaning. She wrote an article about the pentegram.
In this she was talking about power of the pentegram and the relivence
of 5. Unfortunately it was too much for her poor system. Her external
hard disk gave up the ghost. There was too much power in the 5 for the
system to handle.
|
1187.5 | Old question, NEW answer | CLOVE::ABRAHAMSON | | Thu Dec 21 1989 11:43 | 11 |
| Guy,
Could you give a person with NO musical background a better
understanding of harmonics. I have heard that there are people trained
in voice that can hit two notes at the same time. This I was told was
harmonic music. I had at one time tried to find an example of this, but
never had any luck.
Thanks
Jerry
|
1187.6 | Does this help? | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Thu Dec 21 1989 12:48 | 19 |
| .3 Guy,
Maybe! Or maybe Westerners have learned through constant exposure to
think of music as discordant or concordant (dissonant and consonant,
in music-speak).
Remember that Eastern music does not follow the Western, 12-tone scale,
and its resultant harmonies, but has its own sound.
re: .5
The gyoto (sp?) buddhist monks have a technique whereby they are able
to sing 2 tones at once. Its not a technique that you will normally
find taught in music school.
Harmony is the combination of 2 or more notes into "chords." It can be
created on a single instrument (as in the case of the monks, or, more
commonly, on a piano) or by a combination of instruments (a band, a
trio, a quintet, an orchestra, etc.)
|
1187.7 | ouspensky and the number five | CSCMA::PERRY | | Fri Dec 22 1989 12:28 | 15 |
| I assume this music lover has read P. D. Ouspensky's "In Search
of the Miraculouss". I have never gotten through the entire book
(because of laziness mostly). In the book he discusses the seven
notes, ocataves etc. etc. I am sure you have read it.
I am also interested in this meaning behind the number five or the
pentagram. The number five has the meaning in mysticism and the
occult as being the number of man in relation to the four forces
of the earth. Note that a good witch will wear a pentagram with
the point up, putting the influence of man above the forces of nature
while a not so good practitioner (Satanists etc.) will wear the
point down placing man as a slave to the earth.
I picked this up in a book call "The new magus" published by the
Llewelyn Press in MN.
|
1187.8 | David Hykes & the Harmonic Choir | HYDRA::LARU | goin' to graceland | Tue Dec 26 1989 09:38 | 10 |
|
David Hykes & the Harmonic Choir have released a few records and
CDs... they also perform live... They use techniques derivative of
the monks', and produce some hauntingly beautiful music.
At least some of their work is available from Celestial Harmonies
(in Connecticut, I believe). I'll try to remember to post catalog
numbers and disk titles...
/bruce
|
1187.9 | some info | WHEY::BEST | | Wed Dec 27 1989 15:41 | 26 |
| re: .5 (Jerry)
I believe that harmonics and harmonies are two entirely different
things. If someone knows how they are related please correct/inform
me...
Harmonics are found in most any vibrating object. A string vibrating
on a guitar theoretically is vibrating in an infinite number of
harmonics at once. You don't hear them all though, because the
higher the frequency of the harmonic the smaller its amplitude.
The reason different instruments have different tones is because
of how efficiently they reproduce certain harmonics. I don't know
a good way to explain the why behind harmonics in this medium.
If you want to contact me offline I'd be willing to give it a try,
given some time.
A "throat singers" vocal chords are also capable of accenting
harmonics. These folks have learned how to (I think) accent another
harmonic that is higher than their "normal" singing voice. These
throat singers are from the western part of Mongolia and a country
that borders it that I believe is called Tuvin which is now part
of the USSR. I wish I had a recording....
thanks for letting me massacre this topic....;-)
Guy
|
1187.10 | Its all coming back to me... | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Wed Dec 27 1989 17:18 | 30 |
| Guy,
I think the definition of "harmonics" is a little broader than you
imply, and simply means anything relating to sound.
The tone quality of different instruments is determined by the overtones
produced and how strongly they appear. Wind instruments tend to have
the purest tones (particularly the flute), while strings have the most
overtones. I believe it has to do with the "sympathetic vibrations"
incurred in the strings when any tone is produced. It is the "sympathetic
vibrations" that enable you to hear overtones in the piano experiment
that I mentioned earlier. Basically, what happens is that when a sound
is produced, nearby objects vibrate "in sympathy" as they are struckby
the passing sound waves. In the piano experiment, when you strike a
particular tone, the other piano strings begin to vibrate as a reaction
to the sound waves. As they vibrate, they then create a tone. So, for
example, if you play the C below middle C, then the middle C will
vibrate most strongly and first and you hear that tone. The string for
the 5th above middle C (G) also begins to vibrate and you hear that tone.
An so on, through the entire progression.
My guess is that the quality of wind instrument tones varies with the
design of the reed (which, of course, the flute doesn't have). Strings
vibrate the most easily, which is why string instruments have the most
overtones--the strings not being played or damped have the most freedom
to vibrate in sympathy.
Jerry - I don't know which music lover you were referring to, but this
one got her music education by studying theory, history and performance
in school, and by performing chorally.
|
1187.11 | David Hykes & Harmonic Choir | HYDRA::LARU | goin' to graceland | Wed Dec 27 1989 18:04 | 91 |
| CDs:
The Harmonic Choir
Hearing Solar Winds Ocora C.558607 (dist. by Harmonia Mundi)
David Hykes & Harmonic Choir
Harmonic Meetings Celestial Harmonies CD 013/14 (one disk)
I have another album on vinyl, but I haven't unpacked my records
since I moved 6 months ago. I have not yet seen that one (I forget
its name) on CD). I think I got both these disks at the Harvard Coop
some years ago; I have not seen them there recently.
Celestial Harmonies
POBox 673
Wilton CT 06897
Harmonic Arts Society
1047 Amsterdam Ave
NYC 10025
From the liner notes of _Hearing Solar Winds:_
The Harmonic Choir was formed by David Hykes in 1975.
An accomplished experimmental filmmaker with a deep
interest in traditional and sacred music, Hykes had already
acquired broad familiarity with the music of West and Central
Asia when he first herad the Hoomi singing (literally "throat
singing") indigenous to western Mongolia, and the overtone chanting
of Tantric Tibetan Buddhism.
In the Hoomi tradition, singers producea fundamental tone in
the bass or baritone ranged, and then by extremely precise
modulation of the abdominal muscles, chest and vocal
apparatus _ larynx, tongue, jaws, cheeks and lips _ project
simultaneously a higher tone or tones, related in frequency
to the fundamental tone by whole number ratios. These higher
frequencies are called "overtones" or "harmonics." In
producing harmonics, the voice acts like a kind of sonic
prism, "refracting" sound along a frequency spectrum which
extends upward from the fundamental tone.
Each fundamental tone has potentially infinite harmonics.
For any starting frequency, which can be called "one," the
first overtone or second harmonic (the two are identical) is
"two," or twice the rate of vibration of "one." The third
harmonic, or "three," is three times the frequency of "one,"
and so on. In the Choir's music, harmonics are used in
several different ways. First, harmonics which range from 5
to 15 times the frequency of a fundamental tone may be joined
together to produce high flute-like melodies of the sort
heard in [this record]. Second, lower harmonics _ "two,"
"three," "four," and "five" are projected from a cluster of
fundamental notes, creating a gossamer shimmering of beating
tones, as in []. Third, harmonics may be transposed down
from their own octave into the harmonic void between "one"
and "two," where as fundamental tones, they are used to
construct sustained chords and contrapuntal polyphonies. The
tuning of the entire system thus reflects the whole number
"Pythagorean" frequency rations intrinsic to the harmonic
series.
Hykes' music has diverged in several important respects from
that of the Mongolian and Tibetans who inspired hiim. Most
significant is his identification and active manipulation of
five different levels of "harmonic music," as follows:
Level 1: The singer holds a steady fundamental note and a
steady harmonic, as in Tibetan sacred chantt.
Level 2: The singer moves the fundamental note melodiclly and
the harmonic moves in parallel with it, as found en passant
in some wester sacred music, i.e. Bulgarian chant, organum.
Level3: The singer holds a steady fundamental note and
creates melodies with the harmonics as in Mongolian Hoomi
singing.
Level 4: The singer holds a harminic steady and moves the
fundamental note.
Level 5: The singer moves both the harmonics and the
fundamental.
For David Hykes, the significance of the harmonic series as
both a source and an aesthetic standard for a musical
composition lies in its organic lawfulness and proportion.
His work begins at the point where a singer can articulate at
will various harmonics in the series. From there, it moves
towards a living research into the unexplored realms of sound
made accessible by harmonic singing, where acoustical order
can become truly iconic to what is at once a more precise and
a more universal world of number.
|
1187.12 | Harmony | CADSYS::COOPER | Topher Cooper | Thu Dec 28 1989 11:37 | 65 |
| Whoa there:
"Harmonic" has two meanings: as an adjective it means "of or relating
to musical sounds", as a noun it means something like, "multiples of
the fundamental frequency of vibration in a sound wave, and by extension
other forms of vibration". "Harmonics" is either the plural of the
noun form or means the "study of musical sound."
The sound of most musical instruments can be described fairly well as
consisting of a fundamental frequency and a series of harmonics. This
is made more complex in practice by each notes "envelope" which causes
this analysis to change -- sometimes radically -- over the course of
the note. This simple analysis applies because these are the
characteristic of vibrating strings and "columns" of air when not
pushed "too far". The human ear tends to hear tones which consists
of this simple structure as pleasant. Sounds which vary from this
pattern sound somewhat discordant -- though not necessarily
unpleasently so.
Overtones are any components of the sound which are greater than the
basic frequency (undertones also occur but are less important) whether
harmonic or not.
The quality of a sound is determined by the number and pattern of
relative strengths of its overtones.
Chords which reinforce the basic "harmonic sequence" tend to sound
more pleasent than chords which do not (in a sense they are also
blander). In the West for a while, this discovery got turned into
a fetish with inharmonic chords being virtually forbidden in formal
music. Artists managed to cope with this restriction -- as artists
always will -- but music is much better off without it. What sounds
good to you depends heavily on your culture and what you are used to,
but that is modulating some fundamental characteristics of human
hearing which results in some degree of constancy across all cultures
-- you will find all cultures recognizing the importance of the octave
as basic (its the first overtone = second harmonic; the first
being the fundamental itself), and almost all recognize the fifth
(third harmonic reduced by an octave) as "harmonious", but attach
different amounts of significance to it. (All this applies only
approximately to the "tempered scale" generally used today in the
West for technical reasons).
The "standard" western instrument with far and away the most number of
harmonic overtones is the french horn.
The snare drum, and to lesser extent other drums, is the instrument
with the least "harmonic" sound.
Pianos derive some of their rich texture from slightly non-harmonic
sounds. Check inside a piano and you'll find that the lower notes have
three strings for each note. Each of these three are deliberately tuned
to a very slightly different pitch.
The piano "trick" does work by sympathetic vibration. With the pedal
down all the piano strings are free to vibrate, and they are coupled to
each other via the backboard. So with the pedal depressed strings
whose fundamental pitch are overtones (harmonic) of the struck note
pick up some of the sound energy and vibrate (this is the principle of
the "drone" strings used in some Eastern instruments). Since the
higher strings are physically lighter, they tend to vibrate longer,
and so you continue to hear them as the sound of the primary note
dies away.
Topher
|
1187.13 | Can you run that by me again? | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Thu Dec 28 1989 12:54 | 39 |
| Topher,
You've totally lost me in paragaph 2. What do you mean by a notes
"envelope?"
What do you mean by pushing vibrating strings and "columns of air" too
far?
What simple structure is perceived as pleasant??
Huh???
Also, with the exception of one specific chord--the augmented
fourth/diminished 5th (diabolis in music)--I don't believe that
dissonance was "forbidden" so much as "not done." I don't remember
what specifically led to the movement away from the different modes
(which naturally contain some dissonance) to focus on only two (the
major and minor modes--I forget their greek column names), but I'm
certain it wasn't forced by rules.
In any event, I'm not certain that music is better off without
restrictions. Just different. The interesting paradox about
restrictions are that they can serve as a structure, which can
actually be very freeing. Truly great musicians are able
to transcend the existing structures, whereas the second rate and
below musicians lean on it as a crutch (formula writing). When
musical (or other artistic) growth exceeds that allowed by the
current structure, then the structures are torn down by the current
greats and new structures evolve.
On the other hand, the total absence of structure can lead to total
cacophony. Just witness some John Cage! (oops, sorry Cage lovers! ;-)
Structure is what makes the difference between music and noise.
Also, my understanding has been that the flute has the fewest
overtones (and makes the purest tone) and that the violin has the most.
However, I don't remember where I heard this.
|
1187.14 | | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Thu Dec 28 1989 13:27 | 23 |
| Topher,
I looked at your note again and still couldn't make sense of the 2nd
paragraph.
I do think, however, that you've got one thing backwards. Chords which
reinforce the harmonic sequence sound more pleasant to western ears
because we are used to hearing them, not because there is something
intrinsically more pleasing about them.* We are used to hearing them
because western musicians focused so heavily on the harmonic sequence.
The development of the tempered scale was one outcome of this focus.
It allowed composers to modulate from one key to another "midstream"
providing a wonderful device that helped fuel the progress of western
musical development.
* For example, the music of Debussy is considered very consonant by
today's standards (i.e. by what we are currently accustomed to hearing),
but at the time of its introduction, its "dissonance" led to near riots
at concerts.
|
1187.15 | it's been a while | ICICLE::BEST | | Thu Dec 28 1989 14:46 | 6 |
|
The last time I tried to tune a piano I could have sworn that the
lower notes had only *two* strings each while the higher ones had
three....
Guy
|
1187.16 | Oops, did I say that? | CADSYS::COOPER | Topher Cooper | Thu Dec 28 1989 15:18 | 9 |
| Sometimes the fingers are quicker than the mind.
I've *never* tuned a piano myself, though I've often watched it done --
but not in a very long time. Don't the lowest notes only have one
string? (I skipped the intermediate 2 string notes for simplicity, and
then screwed up and said it backwards; but maybe I'm wrong about the
lowest notes only having one string).
Topher
|
1187.17 | Clarifications. | CADSYS::COOPER | Topher Cooper | Thu Dec 28 1989 16:27 | 131 |
| RE: .13 (Mistovich)
> You've totally lost me in paragraph 2.
Sorry, I guess I didn't make myself very clear.
> What do you mean by a notes "envelope".
The envelope of a note is most clearly seen by looking at the loudness
of the note over very short periods of time. If you look at the wave
form and cut out everything below the center line, then connect the
peaks you will have enclosed the wave in an "envelope".
Take a piano note as typical. At the beginning the envelope goes from
zero, and goes up very swiftly to its loudest point and then
immediately drops back to an intermediate point of loudness. It looks
a bit like a church steeple. This is called the notes "attack". Then
comes the "steady-state" or "body" of the note, where the loudness is
almost but not quite constant (it slowly decreases in intensity, and
may, for some instruments fluctuate around the constant value a bit).
Finally there is the "decay" (I may not be rembering all the terms used
for each of these, they are not entirely standardized, although the
electronic musicians who have to build these by hand are working on it)
where the loudness drops back to zero, generally not quite so steeply
as the attack rises.
Although the envelope refers principally to the change in loudness
(amplitude) the harmonic (and non-harmonic) relationships also change
over the course of the note.
> What do you mean by pushing vibrating strings and "columns of air"
> too far.
Let's look at strings. If you pick up a physics textbook, you will
find an explanation for why a vibrating string produces sound which
follows a simple harmonic sequence. The string has natural resonances
which make it look like a sine wave, each such resonance corresponds
to one of the harmonics.
That mathematical explanation assumes, however, that the tension in the
string is not increased when the string is pulled to the side during the
vibration. This is not really true but it is reasonably true if the
vibration is not too intense. If the vibration *is* too intense, then
the increased tension pulls the string back from going quite as far
as it would if there were no extra tension. The natural mode of
vibration becomes a "flattened sine wave". Our ear, which is a
*harmonic* analyzer, hears that distortion as additional faint tones,
or as a "buzzing", "sawing-sound" or whatever depending on the details.
The physicist talks about "non-linearities" and the musician talks
about "unwanted overtones".
Similar non-linearities occur for wind instruments. Much of what a
musician learns on any musical instrument is how to play it in such a way
as to get reasonable volume without producing the "bad tone".
> What simple structure is percieved as pleasant?
Sounds which are relatively easy to analyze in terms of one or a few
harmonic sequences tend to be perceived as more pleasant (though
perhaps also, too boring, depending on what you are looking for).
> -- I don't believe that dissonance was "forbidden" so much as "not
> done."
I meant "forbidden" aesthetically not legally.
> I don't remember what specifically led to the movement away from the
> different modes (which naturally contain some dissonance) to focus
> on only two...
My understanding was the difficulty of writing polyphonic music which
avoided the dissonances. Sequential disonance -- a single voice making
a dissonant step in moving from one note to another -- was considered
acceptable, indeed, was the point of the modes. They were extensively
used with the old single voice music such as the Gregorian chants.
With the rise of polyphony, however, it was considered aesthetically
undesirable to have dissonant chords. It was very hard to write modal
music but maintain "harmony", so composers generally didn't bother. Of
course, with composers not writing the music, people didn't hear it,
and modal music became "alien" and unfamiliar, so that the tendency was
reinforced.
> In any event, I'm not certain that music is better off without
> restrictions.
I was making a personal value judgement on one particular restriction:
the limitation of chordal patterns to certain arbitrary "harmonic
chords". These pattern was *not* based on modern knowledge of the
harmonic sequence but on the Pythagorean harmonic sequence of simple
whole number ratios. The fourth -- by itself -- was given a prominance
which it would not have in a theory based on the harmonic sequence.
Disonance can be used for effect, but it was pretty much forbidden
(aesthetically) for any purpose by scholastic edict.
Yes genius (and less than genius) can overcome restrictions the
limitations of restrictions (I said something to that effect myself)
and some restrictions, even arbitrary restrictions, seems to help
creatativty. But too much restriction, forces the genius to spend too
much creative energy fighting the limitations, and some near-geniuses
who might otherwise have created something of lasting value, will fail
to make the grade.
I don't recommend the erasure of the distinction between harmony and
disonance, by any means. I simply believe that we are better off by
composers being given aesthetic permission to use the specfic tools
of disonance and non-classic harmony when appropriate.
John Cage makes statements about music by demonstration, IMHO, rather
than making music -- he might even agree with that statement, although
not too loudly since that would blunt the power of the demonstration.
> my understanding has been that the flute has the fewest overtones ...
> and that the violin has the most.
You may well be right about the flute, although I would have guessed
the piccolo. I'm moderately certain about the french horn, however.
We may be talking about slightly different things, though. A violin
string is always played on its fundamental, which is changed by
effectively shortening the string length. A note is selected on a
natural horn (a french horn without valves) or equivalently on a horn
with a particular set of valves pressed, by stimulating with the
breath one of the natural harmonics of the tube -- that harmonic whose
frequency corresponds to the pitch desired. Only on the lowest, rarely
played, notes would the full set of dozens of harmonics actually be
there. A typical violin note might therefore have more harmonics than
a typical french horn note, although the french horn itself has many
more harmonics intrinsically.
Topher
|
1187.18 | An old debate in a new guise. | CADSYS::COOPER | Topher Cooper | Thu Dec 28 1989 17:19 | 62 |
| RE: .14
> I do think, however, that you've got one thing backwards. Chords
> which reinforce the harmonic sequence sound more pleasant to western
> ears because we are used to hearing them, not because there is
> something intrinsically more pleasing about them.
Ah, nature vs. nurture, the old debate.
I think that the resolution is the usual one -- both play a part.
I think that there is an intrinsic component to harmony, but that it is
modified -- sometimes to unrecognizability -- by culture, which is as
it should be.
The ear is basically a harmonic analyzer. It tries to put sounds which
it hears into one or more harmonically structured individual sounds.
This is not a result of training but is intrinsic to the physical and
neurological structure of the inner ear. And it makes sense, since
many of the sounds of importance to "primitive" humans are pretty
close to being harmonic sources. If you play a bunch of sine waves
arranged in harmonic sequence to someone, regardless of the culture
they were raised in, it will sound like a single note.
Two harmonically structured tones, one of which is pitched on a
harmonic of the other, will seem to partially "blend". The two notes
become difficult to distinguish from one another, and the "tone and
color" of each will be affected by overtones supplied by the other.
Except under special conditions (e.g., the notes are pure sine waves)
some of the overtones of the higher will not correspond to harmonics
of the lower ones fundamental, so they do not blend completely into
one note (especially since it is unlikely that the pitches are
perfectly on pitch and remain that way), but perceptually it becomes
somewhat difficult to tell where one pitch lets off and the next one
begins. This is the basis of what might be called "natural harmony".
Listen to non-western music, especially "folk-music" (i.e., music not
derived from "formal" training) and you will hear mixed with the
strangeness and the foreign scales, familiar, simple harmonies: the
octave, the fifth and the third.
The Pythagoreans, and later the medival Europeans built an (incorrect)
theory of "natural harmony" on this real basis. This theory was not
based on harmonic sequences in the modern sense, but on the assumed
naturallness of any simple whole number ratio in fundamental frequency.
This became elaborated way beyond any real justification, and became
our western formal theory of harmony, which to some extent (mostly
through the offices of the church choir and ensemble) prevaded all of
western musical culture. Our scale was developed and refined on the
basis of that theory. The theory had to be set aside, however, for
the tempored scale to be developed from it.
"Natural harmony" is not all there is, however. It only presents a
basic acoustic effect which really only applies (except weakly) to
chords -- notes played or sung simultaneously. It is culture which
determines what that acoustic effect means, what the relative weights
of weak harmonies are, what non-harmonies mean, what notes are
available to be played/sung, what sequential intervals are used, and
when, etc. The basic acoustics of the ear is only the raw material
which culture shapes into a musical aesthetic.
Topher
|
1187.19 | Yes, the old nature vs nurture strikes again! | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Fri Dec 29 1989 10:22 | 15 |
| Re: .18 (Topher)
Nature vs Nurture....agreed, elements of both
But I still don't think that musicians need to be "given permission" to
break out of the established structures. (Who would give them
permission anyway? They've already got mine! Oh, I'm referring to
open societies. I realize that in certain countries they DO need
permission.) They simply need to be ready to advance.(Of course, I've
always been a bit of a rebel) It just takes a while for society to
catch up.
Mary
|
1187.20 | like I said, it's been a while...;-) | WHEY::BEST | | Fri Dec 29 1989 11:04 | 8 |
|
re: Topher
the lowest notes may only have one string, I can't remember....I
guess your point about them being slighly out of tune with one
another still holds of course....
Guy
|
1187.21 | Cultural unboundedness is a culturally bound view. | CADSYS::COOPER | Topher Cooper | Fri Dec 29 1989 12:50 | 45 |
| RE: .19 (Mary)
That's very much a 20th century American idea. Musicians spend their
life learning the cultural standards -- which means to a great extent
being "brainwashed" into accepting those standards. The education is
necessary, but it has its consequences. Even those of genius never
really overcome this except in minor ways. Artistic revolutions are
almost always made by reversing a single culturally determined rule,
and following up with the minimum changes necessary to support that
single basic change. Real change only comes in tiny increments, which
the "revolutions" frequently serve to make obvious. Even if someone
were to really step outside the restrictions; who would listen -- they
would be speaking their own made up language which no one else could
even start to understand.
To a large extent, the evolution of western music *was* done by fiat.
Those in power to buy music (by which I mean, support composers) --
mostly the churches -- were trained by the Church University system,
and were trained to believe that certain musical relationships were
"valid" (as proven by the use of wholly arbitrary musical theories
derived mostly without bothering to listen to music) and others were
not. Music which violated those rules was not bought, was not recorded
and was not performed; it was guarenteed to be lost. Meanwhile, the
folk got a careful dose of what the "approved of" music sounded like
every week, and this inevitably had its effects even on "folk music".
Western music isn't bad, and rules which specify what is "normal" are
inevitable and good. Composition rules which are overly "intellectual"
and which are supported by the social system *to the exclusion* of all
other systems are generally not the best choices.
Keep in mind that our concept of the "artist" as distinct from the
"crafter" (craftsman for those whose consciousness has not yet been
raised :-) for hire is a late 19th century western concept. The
composer was a skilled person whose skills were for hire. He
(generally he of course) saw himself that way, as did everyone else.
There was no essential difference between the composer and the
bricklayer in the "spirituallity" of what they did, except for the
greater education needed to work within the highly artificial system
of composition which had been developed. Innovation for its own sake
had no point -- innovation was commedable only if it resulted in music
(or whatever) which better served its purpose -- glorification of God
or distraction of the nobles or whatever.
Topher
|
1187.22 | Can we ever be culturally unbound?? | CARTUN::MISTOVICH | | Fri Dec 29 1989 13:26 | 24 |
| re: .21 (Topher)
That's true, it is a 20th century American idea. On the other hand,
this effects not only music, but all the arts, the food eaten, the
clothes worn, do you marry, who do you marry, where do you live, how do
you live, and everything else.
But I think we're getting back to a nature vs nurture type of argument.
Do people need to be "given permission" to be whatever, or do they need
to take it upon themselves? For example, in the Eastern Bloc countries
today, are the people being given permission by their governments to
throw those governments out and change the rules, or are they taking it
upon themselves to do so?
I think there are actually elements of both. They are being "given
permission" in that Soviet tanks haven't been unleashed upon them, when
they've taken it upon themselves to throw out their governments (excpet
of course Rumania, where their government tried to deny permission and
still failed).
And yes, change happens incrementally until critical mass is reached
enabling more complete or at least overt change.
Mary
|
1187.23 | Order, Chaos, New Order... | CGVAX2::PAINTER | And on Earth, peace... | Fri Jan 05 1990 21:07 | 4 |
|
Visions of Picasso's Violin keep coming to mind during this discussion.
Cindy
|
1187.24 | Nature/Nurture | CIMNET::PIERSON | Tiger Food?? | Wed Jan 10 1990 19:56 | 36 |
| Seemingly related...
A recent NOVA, on the general subject of music, had a segment on
research on the possibility of links between sounds/tones and emotional
states. The researcher, and Australian, felt he had established
certain "universal" relations between the amplitude and frequency
of "musical" (not noisy) sounds. Subjects were asked to press
on a button, varying the pressure as they saw fit, as a researcher
called out various "basic" emotions:
sadness, fear, joy, sex, anger... (memory fades).
The subjects were unable to see the "caller", so their responses
were taken to be spontaneous. Subjects were from various cultural
backgrounds.
The results were felt to show that certain patterns _were_ universal
and cross cultural. The pressure patterns were transposed to
loudness variations of tones, and tested with additional subjects.
The fresh subjects (again, cross cultural) matched the loudness
patterns to the predicted emotional states. The final test shown
involved taking tape recorded copies out into the "Outback" and trying
the test with Australian Aborigines. They, too, identified the
loudness variations with the predicted emotional response...
thanks
dwp
(Footnote: The testing was shown as concealing subject from researcher,
to prevent the subject picking up "body language" as to the "right"
response. A memory of Topher's(?) comment, somewhere back in here,
roughly:
If "telepathy" exists, its going to invalidate a LOT of
experimental behavioral studies.
flickered through my mind...)
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