T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
---|
94.1 | | MOSAIC::TARBET | | Wed Aug 03 1988 16:34 | 5 |
| Many women feel that it makes perfect political sense, Alfred, even
though no etymological sense at all. (And I agree, btw, even though I
don't usually feel the need to do it myself)
=maggie
|
94.2 | Can you elaberate? | CVG::THOMPSON | Accept no substitutes | Wed Aug 03 1988 16:53 | 3 |
| Political sense? I don't understand?
Alfred
|
94.3 | wimmin/womyn/womon | MOSAIC::IANNUZZO | Catherine T. | Thu Aug 04 1988 10:58 | 23 |
| This discussion came up some time ago in another conference to which I
belong. I don't have much time to devote to writing new notes these days,
so here a some extracts from that discussion that may explain the
usage:
etymology:
wif (WIFE) + man (person, MAN)
The fact that man is a term that has been appropriated in the English
language for both generic human and male human is indicative of how
patriarchy takes maleness as the norm of humanity and human experience.
A female human, in this word, is defined as the WIFE of a PERSON.
Originally in old English _wif_ meant only a "female", not necessarily a
spouse, but the transformation of that word to mean only a man's spousal
dependent is indicative of the de-evolution of womyn's status, and an
attempt to define her only in terms of her relation to and social
dependency upon males.
Many wimmin choose not to accept a patriarchal language that treats
woMAN/woMEN as a variation of MAN/MEN. They choose to use alternative
spellings as a way of expressing the challenge to create a definition of
woman/womon/womyn/wimminkind that is free of androcentrism.
|
94.4 | | CSSE32::PHILPOTT | The Colonel | Thu Aug 04 1988 12:04 | 18 |
|
It's curious that "wyf" in old english words like "alewyf",
"fishwyf" and "huswyf" means something closer to "manager" or
"worker". Hence and alewife is the [female] equivalent of a
publican or "landlord"... On which basis I would tend to read
"woman" (if it really is derived from "wyf"+"man") as being a
person who controls her man... (quite possible since in many
respects old Celtic societies were matriarchal in nature).
However I have to admit that my first reaction to the recent note
asking why "wimmin" earn less than men was the lame witticism
that perhaps it was because they lacked the command of English
necesary to spell a simple five letter word...
As for the political point: I quite agree, since a group without
a unique identity lacks power...
/. Ian .\
|
94.5 | | CVG::THOMPSON | Accept no substitutes | Thu Aug 04 1988 12:20 | 16 |
| This entomological history seems to stop a long time ago.
The language changes and woman no longer means wife of a man
it means a female human being. I do not accept the notion that
English is a patriarchal language eather (especially when compared to
many (most?) other languages.
I guess the biggest problem I have is that the alternate spellings
look like corruption of an existing, and perfectly good, word. I
think that a more appropriate response to a perceived patriarchal
indication of the existing word would be to come up with a whole
new word. This new word would not have the historical baggage of
a corrupted existing word. Ms. as a replacement for Miss or Mrs.
is an example. It is not a corruption of Mistress or Miss but
a whole new word; though it does map well with the existing structure.
Alfred
|
94.6 | wife/husband woman/man | HYEND::JRHODES | | Thu Aug 04 1988 16:12 | 17 |
|
Today, my fiance and I were discussing our wedding and he (23 yrs
old, I am 22) told me, "I want the minister to say, 'I now pronounce
you *husband* and wife.' and not the usual Man and Wife."
When I asked him why he stated that it just sounds more equal. :-)
Needless to say I was pleasantly surprised that he had given this
some thought. This just goes back to my reference in Note #4 that
I believe the younger generation (males) for the most part have
been raised to believe men and women are *equals* (for the lack
of a more definitive word).
I realize this has little to do with the "wimmin" issue. Personally,
I am comfortable with the original spelling of the word woman and
frankly, it never occurred to me that it was sexist because the
word "woman" incorporates the word "man."
|
94.7 | Wun myn's kahments | STAR::BECK | Paul Beck | DECnet-VAX | Thu Aug 04 1988 16:59 | 14 |
| re .6 - why not have the minister say "I now pronounce you wife and
husband"? He's still getting top billing...
One obvious problem with the alternate spelling is that, to many, it
seems petty and distracts from legitimate concerns. Rather than
using it as a generic replacement spelling, reserving it for
specific political purposes such as organizational or event names
(it is, after all, primarily a political statement) might reduce
this problem.
In the context of VAX Notes, another problem is clear: spelling is
generally so abysmal throughout most conferences (this one is no
exception) that it simply looks like a misteak - er, misstake - er,
mistake.
|
94.8 | one definition | BURDEN::BARANSKI | Searching the Clouds for Rainbows | Fri Aug 05 1988 00:34 | 3 |
| "This one, at last, is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh;
This one shall be called 'woman,'
for out of 'her man' this one has been taken."
|
94.9 | (I'm digressing again, I'm afraid.) | SHALE::HUXTABLE | | Fri Aug 05 1988 13:44 | 14 |
| re .6
I once heard someone say that they really didn't see any
difference between "man and wife" and "husband and wife"...I
said in that case, no doubt he wouldn't mind being married by
a minister who would pronounce the couple "man and woman." ;)
It did make me wonder, though...why did a man ever need to be
pronounced "a man" at that point? Is there some historical
or cultural reason why a man wasn't a "man" unless he'd gone
through the appropriate adult-hood ritual...marriage? Seems
unlikely, but it did make me curious!
-- Linda
|
94.10 | | CSSE32::PHILPOTT | The Colonel | Fri Aug 05 1988 15:48 | 33 |
|
�It did make me wonder, though...why did a man ever need to be
�pronounced "a man" at that point? Is there some historical or
�cultural reason why a man wasn't a "man" unless he'd gone
�through the appropriate adult-hood ritual...marriage? Seems
�unlikely, but it did make me curious!
Well actually yes there is.
In England (and hence in common English language usage), a young
man used the appellation "master" (Hence when I was younger I
received mail addressed to "Master Ian Philpott", not "Mr. Ian
Philpott).
Back in the days when the Marriage Ceremony was being written a
freeman remained a 'master' until (a) he completed his training
for the knighthood (and became "Sir <whatever>") or (b) became
entitled to the 'title' "esquire" at the age of 21, or (c)
acquired control of his financial affairs (sometimes at 21 but
inherited property was often acquired under an entailed will
when was usually on marriage or sometimes at an older age (25 or
30 were common)). Serfs transitioned at marriage because they
possessed no property to acquire control of.
Hence it is a reflection of the widespread practice of not
allowing a young man to have control of his financial affairs
whilst still wild and single. He became a man only when he
settled down and assumed responsibility by marrying.
Incidentally the term 'bachelor' comes properly from the
appellation 'bachelor knight' applied to a knight in training.
/. Ian .\
|
94.11 | rites of passage | YODA::BARANSKI | Searching the Clouds for Rainbows | Mon Aug 08 1988 10:07 | 8 |
| "Is there some historical or cultural reason why a man wasn't a "man" unless
he'd gone through the appropriate adult-hood ritual...marriage?"
Well, most societies have various adulthood rituals for both sexes, not just
men. And, yes, there is a need to convey the fact that you are now an adult and
will be treated as such, and that you are no longer a child.
JMB
|
94.12 | Married man - unmarried boy | CVG::THOMPSON | Accept no substitutes | Mon Aug 08 1988 13:12 | 5 |
| I know that among some Jewish groups and unmarried man of any age,
though he maybe a man for religious things, is still called a boy
socially (especially by women) until he marries.
Alfred
|
94.13 | a couple of girl-to-woman rituals | DOODAH::RANDALL | Bonnie Randall Schutzman | Mon Aug 08 1988 13:24 | 11 |
| My family has a tradition of giving the family daughters a
sixteenth-birthday present that symbolizes adulthood. My mother
got a watch, which was at the time not something kids ever owned.
I'm debating whether to get Kat flying lessons or scuba lessons.
In some of the Jewish families my husband knows, a girl is
considered a woman at the time of her first menstrual period;
it's not uncommon to hold a party for friends to celebrate
the coming of age.
--bonnie
|
94.14 | transitions? | RAINBO::LARUE | More irons in the fire! | Mon Aug 08 1988 13:51 | 5 |
| When I was 32, I was allowed to drive the family car. That was
my transition into adulthood according to my family. They've never
considered me a woman, just a "broken" man.
Dondi
|
94.15 | How About Esperanto? | FDCV13::ROSS | | Wed Aug 17 1988 15:09 | 8 |
| While we're searching for a suitable word to replace "woman",
should we also be considering a new word for "female" (after
all, it *is* the word "male" with an "fe" prefixing it)?
Come to think of it, "hymen" should probably be "hywymmyn"( or
is it "hywimmin"?) :-)
Alan
|
94.16 | More than you wanted to know | REGENT::BROOMHEAD | Don't panic -- yet. | Wed Aug 17 1988 15:42 | 12 |
| Well, no, the word "female" is not the word "male" with a prefix.
Its basis is the Latin "femina". (For reasons that I do not
grasp, my little dictionary here claims that "male" comes from
the Latin "masculus"; the derivation seems a bit far-fetched
to me. I suspect that it *really* comes from another of the
Indo-European languages.)
Anyhow. As I learned at one of the W.I.T.C.H. lectures, the word
"femina" was deliberately modified to make it look as if it
derived from "male". Isn't that interesting?
Ann B.
|
94.17 | more on derivation | DOODAH::RANDALL | Bonnie Randall Schutzman | Wed Aug 17 1988 16:11 | 17 |
| re: .16
"Male" derives from "masculus" quite nicely according to known
linguistic rules operating in French (the intermediate language)
and English: The "sc" sound became a plain "s" in the transition
to French, and the "-us" ending dropped to a plain "-e", leaving
"masule" or "masle". When the word was imported into English, the
the "s" was forced out.
But you can't get from "femina" to "female" without the deliberate
distortion your lecture pointed out -- "femina" becomes "femme" in
French and doesn't change in English. Unless you derive from the
diminuitive "femella" which means, roughly, "girl".
I can buy either of those theories.
--bonnie
|
94.18 | ba ha ha ha | LEZAH::BOBBITT | invictus maneo | Wed Aug 17 1988 16:20 | 11 |
| Come to think of it, "hymen" should probably be "hywymmyn"( or
is it "hywimmin"?) :-)
why don't we really make a statement with our spelling/pronunciation
of women and do it: Houyhnhnm
would serve them Yahoos right.... ;-)
don't worry, it's just an allusion
-Jody
|
94.19 | | AKOV11::BOYAJIAN | Copyright � 1953 | Wed Aug 17 1988 18:44 | 6 |
| re:.18
Argh! To quote Malcolm McDowell in A CLOCKWORK ORANGE: "I've got
a bit of a pain in me gulliver."
--- jerry
|
94.20 | in search of a man? | MUNICH::WEYRICH | | Tue Sep 20 1988 11:48 | 8 |
| Why not see it the other way - womankind including mankind? (this
is NOT meant to be obscene...)
Can't resist: WO is the german word for WHERE....
Thanks god we have TOTALLY DIFFERENT words over here! (though there's
other things in our language, of course)
pony
+
|