T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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1092.1 | How about these? | WOOK::wookpc.mso.dec.com::LEE | Wook like book with a W | Thu Mar 31 1994 13:16 | 5 |
| Do diacritics like the n-tilde in Spanish and the various vowels-
with-circumflex in French count? As I recall, the former is an
abbreviation of double-n and the circumflex used to be an 's'.
Wook
|
1092.2 | | PADNOM::MAILLARD | Denis MAILLARD | Thu Mar 31 1994 20:42 | 6 |
| Re .0: In French, many words ending in -al or -ail have plural in -aux.
This comes from the way medieval scribes abbreviated -als or -ails,
which looked a bit like an x. Then the habit was formed, and
pronunciation of the plurals followed new spelling. Examples are
"journal, journaux", or "travail, travaux".
Denis.
|
1092.3 | | JIT081::DIAMOND | $ SET MIDNIGHT | Thu Mar 31 1994 21:43 | 1 |
| So the spoken language followed a move made by the written language?!
|
1092.4 | | PADNOM::MAILLARD | Denis MAILLARD | Fri Apr 01 1994 06:06 | 7 |
| Re .3:
> So the spoken language followed a move made by the written language?!
Yes, as far as I know. But, as this knowledge comes from a teacher
back when I was in high school, I could certainly not swear that it is
true. It sounds reasonable, albeit a bit uncommon, though.
Denis.
|
1092.5 | | OKFINE::KENAH | Every old sock meets an old shoe... | Fri Apr 01 1994 06:59 | 3 |
| What about Rx?
andrew
|
1092.6 | 29 letters in Norwegian alphabet, 30 in Spanish | VAXUUM::T_PARMENTER | Unsung Superstar | Fri Apr 01 1994 07:18 | 7 |
| The �, ll of Spanish, the �, � of Norwegian, etc. are not "our" letters
with "their" diacritical marks. They are separate letters of the
alphabets of these languages. This is a fundamental case of written
language following the spoken language, using the standard Latin
character set with additional furbelows to create new characters needed
to express the sounds and words of the existing language.
|
1092.7 | | CUPMK::WAJENBERG | | Fri Apr 01 1994 07:32 | 21 |
| Re .5:
Is Rx used as an abbreviation for another character-string? I'm not
familiar with such a usage but I could well believe it. It's a form of
the Chrismon, a monogram for "Christ," from the first two letters of
"Christos" in Greek, XP, chi rho. Like the cross, it's often used as a
piece of religious ornamentation, especially, I think, on communion
wafers at one time. From the fact that ailing folk were often given
both communion (in case they didn't survive) and medicine (in hopes
that they would) -- or were even given communion AS medicine, Rx became
a symbol for pharmacology.
So I could well believe that Rx is used for "Christ," "communion,"
"medicine," or "prescription," but I haven't happened to run across any
of those usages.
Re .6:
It's been a long time since I ran across "furbelow" in a conversation."
Earl Wajenberg
|
1092.8 | | SMURF::BINDER | Ut res per me meliores fiant | Fri Apr 01 1994 11:27 | 10 |
| Rx isn't the Chrismon. It is a morphed abbreviation of the Latin
"Recipe" which is the second-person singular imperative verb "take."
All prescriptions and medical instructions for use by medical personnel
are written using Latin. E.g., the abbreviations O.D. and O.S. for
eyeglasses refer to "Oculus Dexter (right eye)" and "Oculus Sinister
(left eye)." The letters NPO on a hospital patient's chart are an
abbreviation for "Nihil Per Orem (nothing by mouth)," and the word
"Stat" that you hear in all the TV medical dramas is for "Statim
(immediately)." The letters p.d., accompanied by a number, are "per
diem (each day)." And so on.
|
1092.9 | | DRDAN::KALIKOW | Your obedient Surfer, | Fri Apr 01 1994 12:41 | 6 |
| I could hazard a few hypotheses about the etymology of "furbelow" but not in a
pubic notesfile.
|
1092.10 | | SMURF::BINDER | Ut res per me meliores fiant | Fri Apr 01 1994 15:14 | 3 |
| It's from the French ferbel�. Another English variant is falbala.
Sorry to rain on your parade, DrDan, but this *is* a family notesfile.
|
1092.11 | Yes, No. and other words | FORTY2::KNOWLES | Integrated Service: 2B+O | Wed Apr 13 1994 07:38 | 23 |
| Re .1 Sort of (re enye) but Tom's right too. Philologically, most �s in
Spanish derive from an underlying (usually Latin, although the Latin's
often disguised by the dropping of an intermediate vowel) word that had
two nasals (not necessarily both the same): e.g. do�a < DOMINA. But the
sequence of the change was more probably [2 people in Iberia said
something based on DOMINA, but having only two syllables connected by a
palatalized nasal] [2 medieval monks spending 8 hours a day/six days a
week copying latin manuscripts started using a squiggly device to
indicate 'there's more of this word but I can't be bothered to spell it
out/ isn't it obvious anyway'] [3 some more recent - I'd guess 18th c.,
but I could be way out - writer of Castilian borrowed the squiggle and
used it to invent a new consonant that symbolized the palatalized nasal
that had existed in Iberia for centuries]. So present-day speakers of
Spanish as a first language don't say `oh, that's an N with a tilde'
they say `oh, that's an enye' (trans. Bob Knowles).
And when you say, Wook, that the circumflex `used to be' an `s' it'd be
safer to say that the circumflex in French is usually a sign that
somewhere back in the etymological hinterland of the word a letter -
often S - has been omitted. Sometimes, though, the circumflex is
just a lexicographical convention - as in the distinct DU and D�.
b
|
1092.12 | | SMURF::BINDER | Ut res per me meliores fiant | Wed Apr 13 1994 08:25 | 23 |
| .11
Citing the distinction of du and d� to posit that the curcumflex is a
lexicographical convention is, I think, an error. D� means that which
belongs to a person, the person's property, as in things the person
stores or keeps. The Latin original is DYNAMIS, which can easily be
seen to elide into something that eventually dropped its terminal S and
in so doing acquired the circumflex.
But you are right, probably, in your supposition about the Mediaeval
monks and their copying habits; Latin-language literature is replete
with abbreviations. For example, if this were a letter written to a
friend in classical Latin, I could well sign with the following Latin:
DE RICARDO NASHVENSIS IDIBVS APRILIS ANNO VRBIS CONDITAE MMDCCXLVII
(From Richard of Nashua on the Ides of April in the 2747th year since
the founding of the City)
But, keeping in mind the conventions commonly used by the Romans, I'd
more likely sign it this way:
DE R.O N.IS ID. APR. A.V.C. MMDCCXLVII
|
1092.13 | I rest my case | VAXUUM::T_PARMENTER | Unsung Superstar | Wed Apr 13 1994 12:09 | 4 |
| Spanish alphabet blocks for children have individual blocks for
C CH N � R RR L LL
|
1092.14 | | NOTIME::SACKS | Gerald Sacks ZKO2-3/N30 DTN:381-2085 | Wed Apr 13 1994 13:08 | 3 |
| re .12:
DYNAMIS? When I studied Latin, there were no Y's in it.
|
1092.15 | | JIT081::DIAMOND | $ SET MIDNIGHT | Wed Apr 13 1994 22:43 | 1 |
| He's just being a Y's guy.
|
1092.16 | YY UR YY UB ICUR YY 4 ME | VAXUUM::T_PARMENTER | Unsung Superstar | Thu Apr 14 1994 07:14 | 2 |
| In Spanish, I is "i latina" and "Y" is "i griego".
|
1092.17 | | SMURF::BINDER | Ut res per me meliores fiant | Thu Apr 14 1994 07:22 | 21 |
| Re .14
There weren't many words using a Y in Latin, that's for sure, Gerald.
The letter Y was not native to Italy, but Latin pulled words such as
DYNAMIS from Greek, in which the sound in question was written with a
upsilon. Most Latin textbooks are happy to omit such very occasional
borrowings, as they serve to muddy the waters for many students who
will probably never encounter such things.
The classical Latin alphabet, as used by the Romans, contained the
following 23 letters:
A B C D E F G H I K L M N O P Q R S T V X Y Z
The letter J came into use in about +VI, and U appeared much later
(+XVI or so) as a back formation from the minuscule form of V, which
was u. W is more correctly named in French, "double-V," and it was in
fact indicated by placing two Vs together, as in the Latinization of
Germanic names such as VVALTHARIVS, Walter.
-dick
|
1092.18 | | FORTY2::KNOWLES | Integrated Service: 2B+O | Mon Apr 18 1994 07:30 | 51 |
| Re .12
�Citing the distinction of du and d� to posit that the curcumflex is a
�lexicographical convention is, I think, an error. D� means that which
�belongs to a person, the person's property, as in things the person
�stores or keeps. The Latin original is DYNAMIS, which can easily be
�seen to elide into something that eventually dropped its terminal S and
�in so doing acquired the circumflex.
Please don't think I was suggesting that, generally, the circumflex
is a typographical convention. Of course it's not, and I don't think
it is. But in some cases it is. I was not thinking of D� as in `give
him his due' - I can see the connection there with DYNAMIS. I was
talking about the past participle of `devoir'. The connection there
with DYNAMIS is less clear to me.
Moreover, it is rare for the Nominative in a Latin root of a Romance
derivative to survive. In the early breakdown of spoken Latin it seems
that there was not so much a Nominative/Accusative [etc] distinction,
more a Subjective and a generalized Objective. In French the two
survived only (through the langue d'oc, which preserved the inflexion)
in a few pairs such as
Subjective Objective
========== =========
gars gar�on (<...ONEM)
bers baron
copain campagnon
pois* poisson
* Interesting one. It meant `fish' in AF, I think (from the Latin
PISCES, but it survives today only in the linguistic fossil `porpoise'
(which means PIG-FISH).
So, even if DYNAMIS has anything to do with `devoir' (which I will take
some persuading about), it's most unlikely that its final S (in the
nominative) would have survived its first step into French, let alone
as a more recent circumflex.
But French is not the only language that uses a circumflex; in
Portuguese, for example,
[NB: The rathole ain't over till FORTY2::KNOWLES mentions Portuguese.]
the word `tem' is distinguished lexicographically from the word `t�m'
(in fact the second of the two has two syllables). From a philological
perspective one could point to the Latin TENET and TENENT from which
they derive; but o homem na rua [the man in the street, and note,
incidentally the derivation HOMINEM > homem, not HOMO >homem] just
sticks a circumflex on to make it clear that the subject of the verb is
plural.
b
|
1092.19 | | SMURF::BINDER | Ut res per me meliores fiant | Mon Apr 18 1994 13:42 | 16 |
| .18
In the interest of moving forward, I'm going to do a giant backstep
here and withdraw DYNAMIS as the root of d�. I just this weekend did
some further research on that very etymology, and I was wrong.
Larousse defines d� as �(p. pass� de devoir) 1. Que l'on doit...� The
correct root, then, of d� (debt), the past participle of devoir, is
D�BITVM (debt), the past participle of D�B�RE (to owe), which is the
actual root of devoir (to owe). So there isn't a terminal S to have
been lost, but there is a lot of other miscellaneous litter that was
dropped.
So you have not plugged the rathole, only dug it deeper. :-)
-dick
|
1092.20 | and more | FORTY2::KNOWLES | Integrated Service: 2B+O | Wed Apr 27 1994 06:43 | 6 |
| I just found another example: je�ne, meaning fast (the noun). This
derives presumably from the Latin JEJUNIUM - no s there either, but
as you said of D�BITUM `a lot of other miscellaneous litter that was
dropped.'
b
|