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Conference rusure::math

Title:Mathematics at DEC
Moderator:RUSURE::EDP
Created:Mon Feb 03 1986
Last Modified:Fri Jun 06 1997
Last Successful Update:Fri Jun 06 1997
Number of topics:2083
Total number of notes:14613

1744.0. "Crux Mathematicorum 1826" by RUSURE::EDP (Always mount a scratch monkey.) Mon Apr 19 1993 16:45

    Proposed by P. Penning, Delft, The Netherlands.
    
    (a) In a box we put two marbles, one black and one white.  We choose
    one marble at random.  If it is white, we put it back in the box, add
    an extra white marble to the box, shake the box, and draw again,
    continuing to replace the marble along with an extra white marble every
    time a white marble is chosen, until the black marble is chosen and the
    game ends.  What is the average number of marbles chosen?
    
    (b) What is the average number of marbles chosen if we add an extra
    white marble only after every _second_ white marble that is chosen?
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1744.1SSAG::LARYLaughter & hope & a sock in the eyeWed Apr 21 1993 06:5616
>    (a) In a box we put two marbles, one black and one white.  We choose
>    one marble at random.  If it is white, we put it back in the box, add
>    an extra white marble to the box, shake the box, and draw again,
>    continuing to replace the marble along with an extra white marble every
>    time a white marble is chosen, until the black marble is chosen and the
>    game ends.  What is the average number of marbles chosen?

Working out the probabilities yields 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + ...,
which diverges, so the average number of marbles chosen doesn't exist!
    
    (b) What is the average number of marbles chosen if we add an extra
    white marble only after every _second_ white marble that is chosen?

This appears to be: Sum(n=1 to inf)((4n� + n - 1)/(n� * (n+1)�))
Which converges, at least...

1744.2RUSURE::EDPAlways mount a scratch monkey.Thu Apr 22 1993 09:3519
    That .1:
    
    > This appears to be: Sum(n=1 to inf)((4n� + n - 1)/(n� * (n+1)�))
    
    Maple says that converges to 1 + pi^2/6, but how do you get that
    formula?  I figure there's a 1/2 chance of 1 marble, 1/2^2 of 2,
    1/2^2 * 1/3 of 3, 1/2^2 * 1/3^2 of 4, . . .
    
    If p(i) is the product from j=2 to i of 1/j^2, then the average number
    of marbles chosen is the sum from i=1 to infinity of
    
    	[ (2i-1)/(i+1) + (2i)/(i+1)^2 ] * p(i),
    
    where I have grouped the numbers chosen into pairs -- 2i-1 and 2i are
    numbers 1 and 2 then 3 and 4, et cetera.  This sums, numerically, to
    about 1.409, which is different from 1 + pi^2/6, which is about 2.645.
    
    
    				-- edp
1744.33D::ROTHGeometry is the real life!Fri Apr 23 1993 09:0824
    >> This appears to be: Sum(n=1 to inf)((4n� + n - 1)/(n� * (n+1)�))
    
    >Maple says that converges to 1 + pi^2/6, but how do you get that
    >formula?

    If you expand the summand in partial fractions you will get
    something of the form

      a/n + b/(n+1) + c/n^2 + d/(n+1)^2

    I didn't work it out, but the first two terms probably have
    cancellation leaving well known sums in terms of 1/n^2 (or more
    generally polylogarithms or digamma functions if I recall, which
    is how Maple knows how to do it.)

    From an EE point of view, the terms of the summand are the Fourier
    coefficients of some periodic waveform.  Parsevals relation relates
    these to the RMS value of the waveform itself, which is going to be
    some simple thing involving linear and quadratic terms in this case.

    Which has little to do with formulating the origional problem but
    I just had to put my two cents in :-)

    - Jim [too busy with work to be reading notes]