| Title: | Mathematics at DEC |
| Moderator: | RUSURE::EDP |
| Created: | Mon Feb 03 1986 |
| Last Modified: | Fri Jun 06 1997 |
| Last Successful Update: | Fri Jun 06 1997 |
| Number of topics: | 2083 |
| Total number of notes: | 14613 |
I have an optimization problem.
Let o(t) be a random variable with value 0 or 1, let o(t) = 1 with
constant probability p < 1, and let y1 and y2 be two positive real
numbers. Choose the constant R in the range (0..1) which maximizes
the expected value of V(t) for t >> 1/p.
V(0) = V0 (> 0)
V(t) = ((1-R) * V(t-1)) + (R * V(t-1) * (o(t)*y1 - (1-o(t))*y2))
Or a more intuitive description: Given V(t) $, you choose to re-invest
some fraction R into a risky investment. The investment has probability
p of yielding y1*investment, and has probability (1-p) of yielding
-y2*investment (not really a "Yield", but you get the general idea).
What fraction R should be reinvested as a function of the known values
y1, y2, and p? The constraint t >> 1/p ensures that many 'failures'
will occur, and therefore V(t) will not be monotonically increasing
for R > 0.
/jim
| T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1656.1 | t is discrete time | EPIK::FINNERTY | Sell high, buy low | Fri Aug 28 1992 15:36 | 3 |
btw, t is a non-negative integer. /jim
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| 1656.2 | Lots of Irritating Silly Parenthesis | TAV02::NITSAN | One side will make you larger | Sat Aug 29 1992 04:25 | 13 |
V(t) = ((1-R) * V(t-1)) + (R * V(t-1) * (o(t)*y1 - (1-o(t))*y2)) =
= V(t-1) * [ (1-R) + R * V(t-1) * (o(t)*y1 - (1-o(t))*y2) ] =
= V(t-1) + V(t-1) * R * [ -1 + o(t)*y1 - (1-o(t))*y2 ] =
= V(t-1) + V(t-1) * R * f(t)
/ -1 + y1 (probability p)
f(t) = <
\ -1 - y2 (probability 1-p)
It *seems* that if y1 is "big enough" we want R=1, else we want R=0.
Is there a possibility for any other R as a solution?
/Nitsan
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| 1656.3 | No known closed-form solution | VMSDEV::HALLYB | Fish have no concept of fire. | Sat Aug 29 1992 10:31 | 5 |
This looks like the "optimal f" problem from _Portfolio Management
Formulas_, by Ralph Vince. ISBN 0-471-52756-4, 1-800-CALLWILEY, $50.
Well worth it.
John
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| 1656.4 | VIZUAL::FINNERTY | Sell high, buy low | Tue Sep 08 1992 09:47 | 13 | |
re: .2
line 2 contained an extra V(t-1)
re: .0
viewed as a decision tree, this became pretty straightforward. I
can post some results if anyone is interested. I suspect that .3
has the complete analysis.
/Jim
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