T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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1086.1 | An approach... | NIZIAK::YARBROUGH | I PREFER PI | Fri May 26 1989 10:16 | 13 |
| >(1) Prove there is a non-zero limit to the sequence r(n) of radii of the
>circles.
>
>(2) Find that limit. (I can't do this one)
A little geometry reveals that the sequence of r's has the recursion formula
r = r *cos(Pi/(n+1))
n+1 n
and the cos term tends rapidly toward 1 as n grows. (No, that's not a
proof.) Starting at r = 1, n = 3, r appears to converge fairly slowly to
.1149477172, whatever that is.
Lynn
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1086.2 | | HERON::BUCHANAN | Andrew @vbo DTN 828-5805 | Mon Jun 05 1989 08:29 | 32 |
| (1) Prove there is a non-zero limit to the sequence r(n) of radii of the
circles.
The sequence is product(n=3..infinity) cos(pi/n).
If I have sequence {x_n} of non-negative numbers, none = 1, such that
sum(n=1..infinity) x_n exists, then product(n=1..infinity) (1-x_n) exists and
is non-zero.
To see this pick N such that sum(n=N..infinity) x_n < �.
Now p(N') = product(n=N..N') (1-x_n) >= 1 - sum(n=N..N') x_n > �.
So p(N') is a monotonically decreasing function of N', and is bounded
below, by �, so there is a non-zero limit. So product(n=1..infinity) (1-x_n)
exists and since no x_n from 1 to N-1 takes the value 1, the limit is non-zero.
In the case here, x_n = 1 - cos(pi/n). Now x�/2 < cos x < 1, so
0 < sum(n=3..infinity) x_n < sum(n=3..infinity) (pi/n)�/2
= (pi�/2).(pi�/6 - 5/4). So we have satisfied the conditions, and know that
product(n=3..infinity) cos(pi/n) = P > 0.
(2) Find that limit.
Lynn's numerical estimate is nice to know. I've tried mucking about
with trig identities, but the fact that the n is in the denominator and not
the numerator has prevented me from finding anything interesting. No
progress.
(3) What about circumscription instead of inscription?
Basically, assuming that one starts the inscription and circumscriptions
with the unit circle, the answer is 1/p.
|
1086.3 | | MECAD::ROTH | If you plant ice you'll harvest wind | Mon Jun 05 1989 14:35 | 17 |
| I doubt if this is any help, but you could get rid of PI in the
expression by using the product expansion for COS and get
prod (k >= 3) cos(pi/k)
prod(k >= 3, n >= 1) (1-(2/((2*n-1)*k))^2)
Perhaps rearranging this could give a clue as to its closed form.
By the way, the estimate in .1 seems to be in some error - a closer
value is
0.11494204485329620070104015746959876...
transcendental no doubt :-)
- Jim
|
1086.4 | Precise enough, but how accurate? | NIZIAK::YARBROUGH | I PREFER PI | Mon Jun 12 1989 11:10 | 12 |
| > By the way, the estimate in .1 seems to be in some error - a closer
> value is
>
> 0.11494204485329620070104015746959876...
Without knowing how many repetitions of the recursion you used (or did
you use some other method?) I wouldn't trust the accuracy of this result
regardless of the precision to which it is stated. I used 100,000 to get my
estimate in .1 - how many did you use? Do the last two iterations agree to
all the digits shown above?
Lynn
|
1086.5 | many more iterations are needed | 4GL::GILBERT | Ownership Obligates | Mon Jun 12 1989 18:19 | 29 |
| Here's what I got from my program.
M-1
M Product cos(Pi/k)
k = 3
100000 1.1494771718417489374826257088622E-0001
200000 1.1494488097665505341598383433579E-0001
300000 1.1494393559285103379173237009919E-0001
400000 1.1494346290445569614185054107113E-0001
500000 1.1494317929254062042907630268673E-0001
600000 1.1494299021839812091782317595503E-0001
700000 1.1494285516566819665052428361184E-0001
800000 1.1494275387624598975875102186782E-0001
900000 1.1494267509565848729562132774335E-0001
1000000 1.1494261207123524010141823594241E-0001
To get better accuracy, the program actually calculates:
M-1
sqrt[ Product (1 - sin�(Pi/k)) ]
k = 3
And within the loop, the calculation is as follows, for better accuracy.
Y' <- Y - Y * sin�(Pi/k)
After M iterations, the result may be off by about M/2 least-significant bits.
The actual error is probably much less than this.
|
1086.6 | extrapolation to the limit | MYVAX::ROTH | If you plant ice you'll harvest wind | Wed Jun 14 1989 12:50 | 21 |
| Re .3
It isn't difficult to accelerate the convergence of a sequence
like this. The ratio of the differences between successive doublings
of the number of iterations approaches 2:1, as can be seen from the data
in .5
p0(2k)-p0(k)
------------- --> 2
p0(4k)-p0(2k)
So you may assume this is true and extrapolate to get a new sequence
p1. But why stop here? The ratio of differnces of the p1's approaches
4:1, so you can recursively repeat the pattern to extrapolate to the limit
quite quickly (within the limits of roundoff error and so on.)
This is in need of analytic justification, but in many cases, like
doing a hairy integral or finite element mesh refinement numerical
evidence is all you may have to go on (or have time to get).
- Jim
|
1086.7 | Yooler-Maclurin summation | MYVAX::ROTH | If you plant ice you'll harvest wind | Wed Jun 14 1989 12:56 | 42 |
| Here is a more rigorous way to approximate the product in .1 for the
skeptics here.
Integrate the Taylor series for tan(z) term by term to get a series
for log(cos(pi/k)) about infinity:
(2PI)^2n*B[2n]
ln(cos(pi/k)) = SUM (-)^n*(2^2n-1)-------------- k^(-2n)
n > 0 2n*(2n)!
B[2n] = Bernoulli numbers: 1/6, -1/30, 1/42, -1/30, etc.
Now taking the product is the same as summing the series. Convergence
isn't any quicker, but you can always integrate the series *again*
and use this integral (which can be computed by our rapidly convergent
series) as an approximation to the sum itself.
Think of the series as applying the trapezoidal rule to the integral.
Since the error comitted in applying the trapezoidal rule is expressable
in terms of an asymptotic expansion in the odd derivatives of the
integrand at the endpoints this can be turned around to make an
excellent approximation to a slowly convergent series:
f(a)/2 + f(a+1) + ... + f(b-1) + f(b)/2 = Trapezoidal rule ~=
B[2k] (2k-1) (2k-1)
INTEGRAL f(x)dx + SUM -----(f(b) -f(a) )
a < x < b k > 1 (2k)!
B[2k] = Bernoulli numbers (again!)
Since this approximation improves going into the tail of the series
it's usual to sum the first few terms by hand and add in the correction
for the tail.
This can give some pretty amazing results - taking the product for
3 <= k < 10 directly (a mere 7 terms) and applying a first derivative
correction to the tail gives 0.1149418 already
(should be 0.1149420448532962...)
- Jim
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1086.8 | You mean it's *NOT* 10/87? | POOL::HALLYB | The Smart Money was on Goliath | Wed Jun 14 1989 13:49 | 1 |
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