T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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381.1 | | GALLO::APPELLOF | | Wed Nov 20 1985 09:07 | 15 |
|
/ o
/ 45 Shoreline
/____________________________________________
\ o !
\45 ! Tangential velocity of beam = (2*pi)*(4)*(1/10) km/sec
\ !4 km = (4*pi/5)
\ ! Vector component of beam parallel to shore =
\ ! o
\ ! = (4*pi/5)*cos(45 )
\! = (4*pi/5)*(sqrt(2)/2)
Ship = 1.777 km/sec
Hope I got my algebra right. NCR (no calculus required)
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381.2 | | HOMBRE::MCMENEMY | | Wed Nov 20 1985 09:25 | 9 |
| The answer in my text book, is not what your answer is!!. However, I dont
known where you went wrong. If you want me to place the answer in a reply
to this note, tell me so.
Your diagram does give a better idea of what is going on.
Mike
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381.3 | | LATOUR::APPELLOF | | Wed Nov 20 1985 09:52 | 41 |
| What a sap I am! I used the wrong value for the length of the beam.
What follows is the reply from the kind soul who pointed that out to me:
From: GRUMAN::REILLY "Matt Reilly LTN2-2/C05 (dtn) 229-6994" 20-NOV-1985 09:28
To: GALLO::APPELLOF,REILLY
Subj: Related Rate Problem
Hmmm,
I get something different....
The distance from the light to the shoreline when the beam
is at an angle to the shore is 4 * sqrt(2).
The speed of the point of light is w * r where w is the
angular velocity and r is the distance from the source of the light
to the point. This gives us the tangential speed
s = w * r = 2 * pi / 10 * 4 * sqrt(2)
= 4 * sqrt(2) * pi / 5
Taking the component along the shoreline
s / cos(45 deg) = 4 * pi * sqrt(2) * 2 / 5 * sqrt(2)
= 8 * pi / 5
= 5.0265 km/sec
Is this right?
(I think your problem is in the way you calculated the
tangential velocity of the beam. When the beam is at 45 degrees
to the shoreline, r = 4 * sqrt(2) not 4.)
matt
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381.4 | | LATOUR::APPELLOF | | Wed Nov 20 1985 09:59 | 14 |
| Boy are we confused! The math muscles are creaky today.
How about:
Tangential velocity = (2*pi/10)*4*sqrt(2) as in previous response.
o
Velocity along shoreline = (2*pi/10)*4*sqrt(2)*cos(45 )
Multiply by cos(45), don't divide.
Final answer: 4*pi/5
Are we there yet?
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381.5 | | PIPER::REILLY | | Wed Nov 20 1985 10:12 | 12 |
| I can see it now.... Soon to appear in a journal near you....
AN ITERATIVE METHOD FOR THE SOLUTION OF TRIGONOMETRY PROBLEMS
You are right... Multiply by cos don't divide.
matt
(GEEZ, I think I'll just strap myself into my chair and put away any
sharp objects...)
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381.6 | | HOMBRE::MCMENEMY | | Wed Nov 20 1985 10:23 | 9 |
| Matt's answer is correct, the answer is 8*PI
---- Km/sec.
5
Can someone show me how this answer can be derived by using derivatives?
Thanks Mike
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381.7 | | LATOUR::APPELLOF | | Wed Nov 20 1985 11:18 | 21 |
| Wait a minute! I thought it was 4*pi/5. I'm so confused.
For a derivative point of view, how about this:
<- x ->
__________
\ ! tan(theta) = x/4 by definition, so
\ !
\ ! x = 4 * tan(theta)
\ ! 4 km
\ ! dx d (tan(theta))
\ ! -- = 4* --------------
\ ! dt dt
\ !
\! <- angle theta d (theta)
ship You know that --------- = (2*pi/10) rad/sec
dt
So a simple application of the chain rule at theta = (pi/4) should give
you the answer. (if you do the algebra right (ouch :-)))
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381.8 | | PIPER::REILLY | | Wed Nov 20 1985 13:27 | 27 |
| This note is really from Tom Eggers.
Let Theta be angle of light beam off-normal to shore.
Let x be distance from where normal intersects shore to
where beam hits shore.
Then: tan (theta) = x/4km
x = 4km * tan(theta)
v = dx/dt = 4km * sec(theta)**2 * d(theta)/dt
When beam makes 45 degrees with shore, sec(theta)**2 = 2
Therefore:
v = 4km * 2 * 2pi/10 = 8pi/5 km/sec
This method does use calculus (a slight disadvantage), but it
avoids any use of the length of the beam, the tangential velocity,
or converting the tangential velocity to shoreline velocity.
Now, what is the speed of the beam along the shore assuming that
light has a finite velocity. Perhaps change the light house into
a fog horn and consider the rate the noise propogates along the
shore.
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381.9 | | HOMBRE::MCMENEMY | | Wed Nov 20 1985 13:31 | 57 |
| having already typed in this file and then finding reply .8 I fiqured I
might as write it. Thanks again for everyones help.
Instead of using the chain rule, i found it easier to use implicit
differentiation.
tan(theta) = x/4 by definition, so
x = 4 * tan(theta)
using implicit differentiation,
dx d(theta)
-- = 4* [ sec**2(theta)] --------
dt dt
sec**2(theta) = ( 1/ cos(theta))**2
cos(theta) = .7071
sec**2(theta) = (1/.7071)**2 = 2.0
dx d(theta)
-- = 4 * ( 2) --------
dt dt
d(theta) 2*PI
we known that -------- = ---- sec
dt 10
dx 2*PI
-- = 4 * ( 2) ---- sec
dt 10
dx 16*PI
-- = ---- km sec or
dt 10
the final answer ,
dx 8*PI
-- = ---- km sec
dt 5
Thanks in setting up the equations
correctly!!
Mike
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381.10 | | LATOUR::APPELLOF | | Thu Nov 21 1985 07:50 | 4 |
| After some thought, I have decided that my first method with no calculus
is totally wrong. The derivative method turns out correctly, and actually
is easier to understand. Sorry about that.
|