T.R | Title | User | Personal Name | Date | Lines |
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20.1 | | DENVER::BERNARD | Dave from Cleveland | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:55 | 26 |
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Well, I'm no expert, but what I think I'd do...
If I were thinking seriously about moving in a year, I'd sit tight.
Assuming I had the funds to pay off the mortgage, I'd keep them
somewhat liquid, somewhere where I can get to them at the time I move.
If you're then thinking of buying a new house, you can possibly (if
the lender allows it), make a bid on the new house without placing
a contingency on the sale of your current one. Cash is king when
you're buying, and I believe you'd have a greater degree of flexibity.
As long as you buy another house within the 2-year grace period,
capital gains tax on the appreciation isn't an issue, no matter what
you decide.
If you'll be in your current house long term, I'd pay off a 10%
mortgage. True, you lose a deduction, but you also lose the interest
payment. 10% is significantly higher than any risk-free investment
I could make right now, and I personally like the idea of having my
options open.
Having said that, you'll probably find the next reply to disagree
entirely, but this is what I'd do.
Dave
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20.3 | shouldn't affect cap gains | STOKES::NEVIN | | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:56 | 6 |
| Paying off the mortgage early does not affect your capital gains. The
capital gains are based on the price you pay for the house, what you
sell it for, the cost of improvements, and the costs of buying and
selling.
Bob
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20.4 | Easier to Sell with Mortgage | PENUTS::HOGLUND | | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:56 | 11 |
| When mortgage money is tough to get, it is easier to sell a house with
a large mortgage than a house with no mortgage.
Reasoning: The bank already has a large amount invested in your house.
they don't have to come up with much money if any to finance a new
buyer. With no mortgage, the bank has to come up with the entire
amount.
Of course if you finance the buyer yourself thats not a problem. But
then...
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20.5 | | DENVER::BERNARD | Dave from Cleveland | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:56 | 4 |
| RE: -.1 Isn't that assuming the buyer will use the same mortgage
company that the seller does?
Dave
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20.6 | | SSBN1::YANKES | | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:56 | 19 |
|
Re: .last two
And even more, it presumes that the original mortgage is assumable.
Skipping the added complexity of the secondary market, the bank lent
the money to person A based on person A's financial ability to repay
the loan. If A sells to person B, even if B goes to the same bank
there is no guarantee that the bank will likewise appreciate the
financial situation that B has and want to have the same money lent
out. The money is lent to the person, not the property.
If the mortgage was sold, the same problem exists: the buyer of the
mortgage was buying a loan to the person, not the property. The bank
would then have to try to talk the mortgage owner into entering into
a mortgage with the new person. All in all, I suspect it would be less
work for the bank to just offer this new mortgage to all potential
buyers to see who will come up with the cash.
-craig
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20.7 | Does not Assume! | PENUTS::HOGLUND | | Fri Jan 24 1992 19:56 | 16 |
| It does NOT assume the mortgage is assumable. In very tight money
markets it is easier to negotiate with the same mortgage company.
If I (the bank) hold a mortgage for 100K at 7 1/4 % and I can re
mortgage the same property with a mortgage of 120K @ 8 1/2%, I only
have to layout 20K and I can increase my income on a 120K loan. If you
(the new owner) go to a mortgage company that does not hold a mortgage
on the property, the mortgage company has to layout 120K.
There are times when a mortgage company can get maximum benifit by
selling new mortgages on six of its existing properties than taking on
one new mortgage. There is other criteria that does come into play. I
sold Real Estate for 4 years full time in a tough money market. There
were times when we could NOT get a mortgage on a property unless the
mortgage company held the existing mortgage.
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20.8 | | BRAT::REDZIN::DCOX | | Sun Jan 26 1992 08:10 | 29 |
| In my seldon_very_humble opinion, you only need to answer two
questions. Where can my money provide the highest return? How much
risk am I willing to assume?
To the question of risk, you have a GUARANTEED ROI of money that pays
off a debt. No risk involved.
To the question of highest return, you need to answer the second
question.
For instance, I have a modest balance in our mortgage at 8.25%. I had
an opportunity to pay off the balance last summer. However, I believed
that the Stock Market was bumping around on the low end of the S&P
chart and that I could pick up high quality mutual stock funds at
extremely low costs relative to where I felt the market was going.
Also, and MOST IMPORTANT, I could afford to lose all of the money
without affecting our monthly cash flow. So far, that modest sum has
increased by approximately 20% net taxes.
HOWEVER, last summer the pundits were predicting a replay of the
October 1987 crash. Had they been correct (and they seldom are, but
that's another controversial opinion), I would have lost some of my
principal.
Pay off the mortgage with funds you do not NEED and the WORST that will
happen is that you will grumble about opportunities lost. Put the
money elsewhere for hopes of better return and you run the risk of your
spouse reminding you (often) of your Financial acumen. :-)
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